My wife and I divorced almost two years ago. The agreements were that she would supply "in kind" support in lieu of child support and be able to claim our son every other year. She has provided almost no support at all and I will likely petition the court to initiate traditional child support. She has bought him clothes 3 times in the two year period - each instance likely less than $200 and he has lived with me the entire time. She claimed him for 2016 because it was "her turn" but failed to provide much support and he lived with me for almost the entire year (a few overnight visits occurred lasting 1-4 days).
I don't feel a divorce agreement creates new law and that she shouldn't have claimed him and I should be entitled to dispute it. I would appreciate opinions.