My new husband bought a home late in 2007. (His first in a while.) Basically, this was intended as an investment/rental. He and I work in different areas of the state.... so, it, too... provided a location between work and me.
He used/uses the residence to store tools (large garage), and from time-to-time, has stayed there when working really late. However, in all terms of the definition of 'Primary Residence', he has lived with me.
From my readings, to prove this, he would have had to register his vehicle, license, etc. He has not. As noted, this home has been a work convenience. From where we live, he would never had been home in the proper hours to vote, get his driver's license, etc. He did state on his 2007 that this was his primary residence (at the time, we were not married and the other dwelling was rented.... as we weren't sure what we were going to buy, yet). So with that, he has just kept all his 'paper trail' in the town where he bought the home (he also bought it to be closer to his son when he has him.... typically less than 2 weekends a month). He's never been home long enough to finish the improvements he started to have it renter ready (still no cabinet doors on the kitchen cabinets).
Any advice if he can amend his primary residence? It is really hard to make this decision knowing he's been with me the entire time (95%) but knowing the home it 'there' should he need to use it for some purpose (other than 'living').
I hope this makes sense. I'm trying to calculate if he has 'owned a primary residence' in the last 3 years.
Thanks so much in advance for any advice on this matter.