I finalized my divorce this year and a slight variation from most posts here still leaves my question unanswered.
I purchased the house prior to our getting married and it is in my name, as is the mortgage. She is not listed on anything. When we divorced I moved out and she stayed in the house with the intent of purchasing it (as soon as administratively possible, whatever that means). She and her new boyfriend have paid all the bills there for the majority of the year but have been unable to purchase it from me as yet.
With taxes here now, who gets to claim the interest?
She did make most of the payments this year, but everything is still in my name only...

Other posts make me unsure if she is even allowed to claim since she is not listed on the mortgage.

Thank you for the help.
Drew