My fiancee separated from his ex in 2001. Their divorce was final March 2007 and she was living in the marital home until its sale earlier this month. My research shows he is eligible for the cap gain exemption, however; in 2002/2003 he removed his name from the mortgage, but not the deed. As he remained on the deed until the sale this month am I correct in interpreting that legally he is deemed to have been a joint owner to qualify for the CG exemption? All comments are appreciated.

Thanks!